| There is
a commonly suggested theological summation with reference to 'fornication'
as it pertains to the 'putting away/divorce' of one's wife that a 'married
couple' CANNOT commit fornication. As such, many use the following
argument as the basis for their theology.
"Joseph was about to put
Mary aside for fornication, even though their marriage had not been
consummated, but he was allowed to do that without
any liability under the law, but had their marriage been totally
consummated, he could not have put her aside for any reason, because a
married person cannot commit fornication in the marriage sense of the word.
While there are many forms of fornication, if a man or woman
who is married has sex with another person, he or she commits adultery, NOT
fornication."
With respect to the above quotation I humbly ask that
those who support this theory PLEASE answer the following questions:
Do they think that ANY of the individuals in the following Passage were ever
'officially' married (per their definition of marriage - marriage sexually
consummated) before they committed their wicked acts of fornication OR do
they suggest that NONE of these peoples had ever been officially married?
Jude 1:7
Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the
cities about them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and
going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the
vengeance of eternal fire.
We know from Scripture that the above noted sin of
'fornication' was indeed both physical and sexual.
Meanwhile, how do they explain these Passages referenced by Apostle Paul and
do they think that ALL 23,000/24,000 Jews who committed this act of
fornication were actually ever 'officially married' per their definition?
They were committing Hebrew 'zanah' - fornication/whoredom/idolatry
BOTH physically and spiritually with the daughters of Moab and their pagan
gods. (Num. 25:1-9)
1 Cor. 10:8
(emphasis added)
Neither let us commit fornication, as some
of them committed, and fell in one day three and twenty thousand.
Numbers 25:1,9
And Israel abode in Shittim, and the
people began to commit whoredom with the daughters of Moab... And those that
died in the plague were twenty and four thousand.
In closing, are they also equally suggesting that the
'commonly reported' practice of fornication with respect to 1 Cor. 5:1
(having one's father's wife) reasonably assumes that there was absolutely no
chance that the father could have still been living when this egregious act
of fornication was committed against him by his son?
1 Cor. 5:1
It is reported commonly that there is fornication
among you, and such fornication as is not so much as named among the
Gentiles, that one should have his father's wife.
In order for the above suggested theology regarding
fornication as being NOT applicable to 'married couples' (after the marriage
is sexually consummated) to be sustainable, then they are compelled to
answer the above questions with Biblical proof and clarity supporting their
preponderance.
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