IS/WAS Jesus
GOD |
Posted below are specific Scriptures that DIRECTLY reveal Jesus "IS/WAS" God... There are MANY others that INDIRECTLY declare that Jesus "IS" indeed GOD. I will open my presentation with the following question...
If Jesus was/is not GOD – then how can He be worshipped
as GOD
– whom God Himself commanded
that
ALL the angels of God should
WORSHIP Him? Hebrews 1:6 (KJV) Thus, if He is not God then this forces God to contradict His own Second Commandment - but yet Scriptures clearly declare that Jesus was/is "WORSHIPED" by many.
Exodus 20:3 (KJV)
Exodus 34:14 (KJV)
Matthew 1:23 (KJV)
Matthew 4:10 (KJV)
Hebrews 1:6 (KJV)
11 And when they were come into the house, they saw the young child with Mary his mother, and fell down, and worshipped him: and when they had opened their treasures, they presented unto him gifts; gold, and frankincense, and myrrh.
2 And, behold, there came a leper and worshipped him, saying, Lord, if thou wilt, thou canst make me clean.
18 While he spake these things unto them, behold, there came a certain ruler, and worshipped him, saying, My daughter is even now dead: but come and lay thy hand upon her, and she shall live.
33 Then they that were in the ship came and worshipped him, saying, Of a truth thou art the Son of God.
25 Then came she and worshipped him, saying, Lord, help me.
Matthew 28:9 (KJV)
17 And when they saw him, they worshipped him: but some doubted.
6 But when he saw Jesus afar off, he ran and worshipped him,
52 And they worshipped him, and returned to Jerusalem with great joy:
John 20:28 (KJV) 28 And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.
Revelation 1:20 (KJV)
Other Scriptures that directly call Jesus GOD are as follows: John 1:1 (KJV)
Matthew 1:23 (KJV)
Isaiah 9:6 (KJV)
Psalms 45:6-7 (KJV)
33 The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.
Acts 20:28
(KJV)
1 Timothy 3:16 (KJV)
Titus 2:13 (KJV)
Hebrews 1:3 (KJV)
Hebrews 1:8
Not only is Jesus God but Jesus declares in Jn. 20:17 that YHWH is His GOD.
John 20:17 (KJV) 17 Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.
1 John 5:20 (KJV)
2 Peter 1:1
Meanwhile, the subscribers to and promoters of the misguided theology of "Unitarianism" advocate that respective to Psalms 110:1 that the Hebrew word "Adoni" is used exclusively and defined in both Lexicons and Scripture as ONLY a "HUMAN Lord" or angel, and not the "DEITY Lord" Jesus Christ Himself. Thus, they ABOMINABLY declare as the nucleus of their doctrine, from this one single Passage, (Ps. 110:1) that Jesus is unquestionably NOT God (the DEITY) but rather a mortal human "god/lord".
PLEASE note: the following commentary also reveals the FALSITY of the "Oneness/Jesus ONLY" doctrine as well - Ps. 110:1; Josh. 5:14 and Jdgs. 6:13 each reveal TWO Deity personalities, which are none other than LORD YHWH (God the Father) and Lord ADONI (Yeshua Jesus - God the Son).
Meanwhile, please see Deut. 6:4 for a complete commentary on "God is ONE God" - but yet PLURAL Unity... http://www.shalach.org/GodExists/deuteronomy_6.htm
The Hebrew word, ECHAD, in relation to Deut. 6:4 above, "Jehovah our Gods is Jehovah ECHAD." Thus, it is indeed correct to translate Deut. 6:4 as, "Jehovah our Gods is ONE Jehovah," only as long as we understand that ECHAD is to mean "ONE" - Altogether or in Unity, but most certainly not ONE as an absolute singular numerical digit one. Thus, ECHAD, means to Unify or Altogether, as ONE or in UNITY. This usage of ECHAD, used as a Collective UNITY, is found HUNDREDS of TIMES throughout the OT. Thus, its most common use and meaning are well established.
To this end, when a Compound "one" is intended to be understood, ECHAD is the word of choice. For example, in Gen. 1:5, ECHAD is used to express the Oneness of Evening and Morning in One Day… "There was evening and there was morning, ONE day"; Likewise, the DUALITY of the ONENESS in Marriage, as cited in Gen. 2:24, "They two shall be ONE- FLESH." Moreover, it denotes a multi-unit in Genesis 11:6, "Behold, they are ONE people," as well as several times in Exodus 26, "And thou shalt make fifty clasps of brass and put the clasps into the loops and couple the tent together that it may be ONE."
Nonetheless, ECHAD is repeatedly the OT word of choice, used in such phrases as "ONE Cluster of Grapes" (Numbers 13:23), "ONE Company" (1 Samuel 13:17), "One Troop" (2 Samuel 2:25), "ONE Tribe" (1 Kings 11:13), "ONE Nation" (1 Chronicles 17:21), et al. Going forwards, the Unitarians proceed to present their fraudulent case using the acclaimed Brown-Driver-Briggs Lexicon in which they only PARTIALLY represent the full and actual meaning of the Hebrew "Adoni" as publish by the Brown-Driver-Briggs Lexicon...
In other words it is their premeditated
intention to both defraud and to thereby deceive...
Therefore, my
response to their insisted fraudulent claim is as follows:
Adonai
and Adoni (Ps. 110:1)
The NT’s Favorite Old Testament
Proof-text
is based on an “incomplete and partial” representation of the published
facts from the acclaimed and proven credible Brown-Driver-Briggs
(BDB) Lexicon.
You presented the following from the published works of
Brown-Driver-Briggs...
Adonai
and
adoni are variations of Masoretic pointing to distinguish divine
reference from human.
Adonai
is referred to God but Adoni
to human superiors.
Adoni—ref. to
men: my lord, my master [see Ps. 110:1]
Adonai—ref. to
God…Lord” (Brown, Driver, Briggs, Hebrew and English Lexicon of the
Old Testament, under adon [= lord], pp. 10, 11).
However, as I have just stated – this is an “incomplete” and “partial”
representation of the published facts of what Brown-Driver-Briggs
actually state respective to their complete and formal definition of the
Hebrew word “Adoni”.
As such, I personally own this Brown-Driver-Briggs Lexicon, October
2006 printing publication (pp. 11), as well, and therefore posted below is a
facsimile photo of the portion/part of the Brown-Driver-Briggs
description/definition and Biblical usage for the aforementioned Hebrew
word “Adoni” in which you omitted.
Please note that not only does Brown-Driver-Briggs declare what you have stated above but they additionally state that according to BOTH Josh. 5:14 and Judges 6:13 (see circled section photo below - pp. 11) this Hebrew word “Adoni” equally means a “Theophanic angel”.
Therefore, a “Theophany” is defined as per Webster’s New World College Edition Dictionary (Oxford Dictionary being the same) as – “a supposed visible appearance of God or a god to man”.
A manifested presence of a created non-deity being (an angel) who represents and speaks on the behalf of a non-manifested and non-present DEITY (God).
Their hope is nonetheless futile because there are NO legitimate dictionaries that define a "Theophany" as such - to the contrary it is defined as a manifestation of a DEITY...
To this end, in any court of theological juiceprudence where the factual evidence
evokes the judicial resolve, your case for the “absolute” and
“exclusive” defined use of the Hebrew word “Adoni” as an insisted
“HUMAN Lord” and not the equally applicable and available, per Biblical
Scriptural context, “Theophany of the DEITY Lord”, is hereby declared null
and void.
In summary, the mere quantity (195, etc.) of the Biblical usage for any specific word (i.e. Adoni) does not, and hermeneutically cannot, based on sound theology, in and of itself mandate or validate a legitimate claim of exclusivity of one meaning superior to and silencing the equally available other(s) meaning(s) – especially where there is ample presented Scriptural evidence stating another valid meaning is indeed equally appropriate for a given word, in this case the 2 usages in Josh 5:14 and Judges 6:13, each present the solid evidence for the valid and appropriate application of the alternate meaning of the Hebrew “Adoni” - “Theophanic angel of the DEITY Lord”.
To this end, your unsupportable notion and preponderance of evidence is completely defeated and undeniably proven without
merit!!!
Going forwards, respective of the Lord “adoni” of Ps. 110:1 we
see that this exact same verse is restated by Jesus in the NT in Matt.
22:44, Mk. 12:36, Lk. 20:42, and Acts 2:34 . (emphasis added)
For example...
Psalms 110:1 (KJV)
Matthew 22:44 (KJV)
Thus,
you will please kindly note that the Hebrew word in Ps. 110:1 is, as
previously stated, the Hebrew “adoni” #113. Likewise, the
Greek word in Matt. 22:44,
Therefore, the meaning of the Greek “Kurio” Strong’s #2962 is a
follows: (emphasis added)
from kuros (supremacy); supreme in authority, i.e.
(as noun) controller; by implication Mr. (as a respectful
title) :- God, Lord,
master, Sir.
To this end, we can prove that David declared by the Spirit of God that
the Lord of Ps. 110:1 and the Lord of Matt. 22:44, Lk. 20:42, and Acts
2:34 are indeed
Luke 2:22 (KJV)
In the above Lk. 2:22 Passage Mary and Joseph are presenting Jesus to
the Lord in Jerusalem in accomplishment of the Mosaic Law. The
Greek word Lord (Kurio) used
It is very revealing and quite obvious in this Passage that Jesus as a
baby was NOT presented to Himself – but rather to His Father YHWH God.
Therefore, the Greek word “Kurio” which is used here is indeed
interchangeable for a DEITY (God), with each related to its own context
– YHWH God vs. Jesus/Adoni God.
I
would be VERY care quoting the work or supporting sources of Anthony
Buzzard regarding the Hebrew word “adoni”. Why?
It is Mr. Buzzard’s intended and misguided goal to prove that the Hebrew word “adoni” is exclusively used to define a non-deity (Human) ONLY and is equally expressed so in Ps. 110:1.
It appears 195 times, and is used almost entirely of human lords (but occasionally of angels). When translated “lord,” it always appears with a lower case “l” (except for that one time in Psalm 110:1). To this end, please allow me to direct your attention to Josh. 5:14 and Jdges. 6:13 of which both use the Hebrew “adoni” and are BOTH declared by the credible and acclaimed Brown-Drive-Briggs (BDB) Lexicon, as I stated earlier, is defined as a “THEOPHANIC angel”– a Theophany (please see facsimile photo of BDB p. 11 below).
As such, a “Teohphany” is defined by Webster’s New World College Edition Dictionary (Oxford Dictionary, and MANY others) as – “a supposed visible appearance of God or a god to man”.
Thus, with respect to your specific Ps. 110:1 Hebrew “adoni” vowel pointings – where is your cited Lexicon supporting evidence that specifically declares that the Ps. 110:1 Hebrew “adoni” is EXCLUSIVELY mandated to be understood as a non-deity rather than a DEITY as is Josh. 5:14 and Jdges. 6:13. – and PLEASE do not suggest the methodology of proof as the Scriptural quantitative use (195 times) of this said Hebrew word “adoni” as a basis for sound hermetical theological evidence, because it is quite obvious that Josh. 5:14 and Jdges. 6:13 are two specific exceptions of “adoni” examples that refute such a notion of – translation by quantitative use.
Just ONE Scriptural exception of the Hebrew “adoni” nullifies any
attempt to establish the Anthony mandate/requirement “law” declaring the
“adoni” of Ps. 110:1 as specifically EXCLUSIVE to a Human and not
to a DEITY.
Meanwhile, Mr. Anthony Buzzard equally declares on his website in his article entitled Adonai and Adoni (Psalm 110:1) as one of his cited sources of supporting evidence - the following:
“The form ‘to my lord,’ l’adoni, is never used in the OT
as a divine reference…the
generally
accepted fact [is] that
the Masoretic
pointing distinguishes divine references (adonai)
from human references (adoni)
(Wigram, The
Englishman’s Hebrew and Chaldee Concordance of the OT, p. 22)”
Here is an online link to his (this) cited source of The
Englishmans’s Hebrew And Chaldee Concordance of the Old Testament”
– Vol. 1. p. 22. (please scroll upwards to pg. 22)
The Englishman's Hebrew & Chaldee Concordance of the OT
As such, you will quickly notice from the link above and my below posted
personal facsimile photo copy of this said cited source - pg. 22, there
is NO mention whatsoever of his supporting statement published by this
author (Wigram)... (emphasis added)
Anthony simply rides the coattail of the
established creditability of Wigram
Therefore, where then did Anthony actually get his aforementioned
supporting statement from?
Meanwhile, as stated, I personally own “The Englishmans’s Hebrew Concordance of the Old Testament” by George V. Wigram (Sixth Printing – April 2006) that Anthony cites above and on p. 22 it makes NO such declaration respective of what he states in the following.
... generally
accepted fact [is] that the Masoretic pointing distinguishes divine
references (adonai) from human references...
Therefore, where then did Anthony actually get his
aforementioned supporting statement from – it was most certainly NOT
from these two sources?
In summary, once again with respect to your specific Ps. 110:1 Hebrew “adoni”
vowel pointings suggestion of a non-deity to the absolute
exclusion of a DEITY – where is your cited Lexicon
supporting evidence that specifically declares that the Ps. 110:1 Hebrew
“adoni” is EXCLUSIVELY mandated by definition to be understood as
a non-deity rather than a DEITY as is clearly evidenced in Josh. 5:14
and Jdges. 6:13?
We must also keep in mind that the insisted distinction between “adoni” and “Adonai” was not actually present in the Hebrew Text when it was first written. This distinction is only expressed by the vowel points that were added to the text more than some 1000 years after the Text was originally written. There is no evidence whatsoever, of any kind, that this suggested distinction of “adoni” vs “Adonai” ever existed in Old Testament times. This distinction between “adoni” and “Adonai” is nothing more than a group self-righteous expression of the Masoretic pharisaical scholars who decided to divide one Hebrew word into two different words in order to uphold their own traditions! That is the only reason why we have today a distinction between “adoni” and “Adonai”. Most people in the churches of God are not aware of how the Jews gymnastically alter things in the Hebrew Text that they want to change. Two of the most often used ways is that they achieve such unwarranted changes - that are referred to as “qaryan we-la’ ketivan” (which means “read but NOT written” - i.e. they read something that isn’t in the Text) and as “ketivan we-la’qaryan” (which means “written but not read” - i.e. they deliberately do not read something that is actually contained in the written Text itself). Another way they achieve their desired changes in how the Hebrew Text is to be understood is by deliberately changing the meaning of certain Biblical Hebrew words. Simply just give a word a totally new meaning, and you have a perfectly good explanation for your otherwise questionable IMO (in my opinion). This is a tactic the Tannaim and the “rabbis” of Talmudic times resorted to quite frequently and still do today.
Brown-Driver-Briggs
b.
a prophet
Isaiah 42:19;
Isaiah 44:26;
2Chronicles 36:15,16;
Haggai 1:13;
the herald of the advent
מלאכי
Malachi 3:1.
the theophanic angel ה֯א֠להים ׳מ in the story of E:
Genesis
21:17;
Genesis 31:11;
Exodus 14:19,
also in Judges
6:20;
Judges 13:6,9; יהוה ׳מ in the story of J:
Genesis 16:7,9,10,11;
Genesis
22:11,15;
Exodus 3:2;
Numbers
22:22,23,24,25,26,27,31,32,34,35 and in
Judges 2:1;
Judges 2:4;
Judges 5:23;
Judges 6:11;
Judges 6:12;
Judges 6:21
(twice in verse);
Judges 6:22
(twice in verse);
Judges 13:3,13,15,16
(twice in verse);
Judges 13:17,18,20
(twice in verse);
Judges 13:21;
הַמַּלְאָךְ
Genesis 48:16 (E); מַלְאָךְ
Exodus 23:20
(E), Exodus
33:2;
Numbers 20:16 (JE),
Hosea 12:5;
מַלְאָכִי
Exodus 23:23 (E),
Exodus 32:34
(J); מַלְאָכוֺ
Genesis 24:7,40
(J), פניו ׳מ
Malachi 3:1
(referring to the ancient
מלאך); הכרית ׳מ
Malachi 3:1
(referring to the advent of ׳י for judgment, see BrMP 473).
The theophanic angel is not mentioned in D and P.
Exodus 20:3 (KJV)
Exodus 34:14 (KJV)
Matthew 4:10 (KJV)
Hebrews 1:6 (KJV)
Isaiah 7:14 (KJV)
Revelation 1:20 (KJV)
John 1:1 (KJV)
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