UNCONDITIONAL Eternal Security
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Romans 3:24-25 (KJV)
Going forwards, I pose the following question for those who support the notion that ALL Future sins are forgiven and the New Birth experience. Are the ‘potentially’ UNCONFESSED and UNFORGIVEN FUTURE Sins of
1 Jn. 1:9
and
Matt 6:15,
18:35, et. al., INCLUDED in the UNCONDITIONAL Eternal Security
absolute (100%) FUTURE Sins forgiveness (past/present/FUTURE) - suggested
to be absolutely forgiven at the initial justification (New Birth)
experience?
Matthew 6:15 (KJV)
1 John 1:9 (KJV) As such, does the Bible actually say that God forgives "a" FUTURE same exact sin TWICE - once initially at the JUSTIFICATION/JUDICIAL experience (new birth) and then subsequently once again as the requested/confessed FELLOWSHIP forgiveness? Hence, a DOUBLE JEPORADY of forgiveness for "a" singular exact sin. Can anyone prove Scripturally that God indeed forgives the same exact sin TWICE - or as attributed to aspect /part "A" Judicial and subsequently aspect/part "B" Fellowship. (see TWO ASPECTAL FORGIVENESS debunked http://www.shalach.org/Salvation/ETTwoSinAspects.htm)
To this end, in 1 Jn. 1:8-10, John reveals that ALL Believers can
and do sin – and if I might add some more grievous than others.
Meanwhile, with respect to Matt. 10:33 Yeshua declared that
WHOSOEVER (Saint or Sinner alike) shall “deny” Him before men –
this same denier would likewise be denied by Yeshua Himself to His YHWH Father in
Heaven.
Therefore, with direct respect to the theology of “unconditional”
eternal security and its mandated absolute forgiveness of ALL FUTURE sins
at the moment of the initial justification experience – how do you
reconcile the following with respect to the “potential” and knowable,
willingly refused unconfessed and unforgiven Believer’s “potential” FUTURE
sin of Matt. 10:33?
Can the Believer who both knowingly and willingly chooses to commit such an above cited sin and then willingly refuses to confess his/her sin before YHWH, dying in that unconfessed/unforgiven condition – thereby subsequently being DENIED by Yeshua Jesus to His Heavenly Father YHWH, can this WHOSOEVER individual still expect to unconditionally enjoy eternal life in the Kingdom and presence of G-d? With regards to what those who both promote and teach respective to the doctrine of UNCONDITIONAL Eternal Security/OSAS/Perseverance of the Saints/Reformed Theology, etc. – they boldly declare that at the moment of the initial Justification experience all FUTURE Sins receive a mandatory appropriated/imputed absolute FORGIVENESS for all perpetuity. Therefore, these simple little questions below will easily prove whether they are indeed RIGHT or WRONG? Respective to the Parable Jesus taught in Matt. 18:23-35 on His ‘commanded’ FORGIVENESS principal of the Brother’s trespasses – Did the Wicked Servant in this Parable have his ‘initial’ FORGIVENESS of his said ‘DEBT’ REVOKED by his Lord? YES or NO? Likewise, was the entire ORIGINAL formerly forgiven ‘DEBT’ of the Wicked Servant in this Parable REINSTATED by his Lord? YES or NO? Moreover, did Jesus restate this SAME ‘commanded’ FORGIVENESS principal and consequential outcome in Matt. 6:15 and Mk. 11:26? YES or NO? If therefore, they cannot answer each of the above cited questions in a Scripturally affirmed absolute NO – then their notion of Eternal Security/OSAS/Perseverance of the Saints/Reformed Theology, etc., Scripturally FAILS by none other than the Commandments of Jesus Himself. Meanwhile, John the Revelator declared in Rev. 22:19 that if "ANY" man (Saint or Sinner alike) should take away from the Words of the prophecy of this Book, that God would take his "PART" (greek meros #3313) out of the Book of Life... This same identical greek word "meros" PART is used by Jesus when He told Peter to allow Him to wash his feet...(Jn. 13:8) Thus, you can rest assured that ANYONE who has no PART in the Book of Life will equally have no Eternal Life with God and Christ!!! Once again, by its very definition – UNCONDITIONAL Eternal Justification declares and mandates that 100% (absolute) of ALL FUTURE Sins are FORGIVEN (not simply PERPETUALLY Atoned/forgiven) at the INITIAL Justification and thereby, ABSOLUTE FORGIVENESS is 'imputed/applied' to all FUTURE Sins as well. Therefore, it does not matter what label or heading (Positional/Experiential/Practical/Fellowship, etc.) we place upon these POST Initial Justification Sins cited in 1 Jn. 1:9, Matt 6:15, 18:35 and John 13:8 - they are still nonetheless 'potentially' UNFORGIVEN Sins which fall under the direct authority of Jesus' and John's conditional "IF". Thus, if these are potentially UNFORGIVEN Sins that occur SUBSEQUENT to Initial Justification, then UNCONDITIONAL Eternal Justification has NOT the 100% Forgiveness it deliberately and insistently boast. Those who support UNCONDITIONAL Eternal Justification as stated, declare that an absolute ALL of Sins (Past/Present/Future) were/are FORGIVEN at the INITIAL Justification experience. That being the case, were/are the subsequent CONDITIONAL IF Sins announced to BELIEVERS by John in 1 Jn. 1:9 included in those INITIALLY FORGIVEN “FUTURE” Sins at Justification? Here is what you are suggesting if you answer YES – God FORGIVES “ALL” FUTURE Sins TWICE. Once at INITIAL Justification and AGAIN when in the FUTURE the Sin is actually and literally committed – even though it is the SAME IDENTICAL Sin said to already have been forgiven. Likewise, you have implied if you answer yes, that for sake of example, that the FUTURE Sin of IDOLATRY is INITIALLY FORGIVEN at the moment of Justification. However, when this SAME IDENTICAL Future Sin of IDOLATRY that you have stated was INITIALLY ‘absolutely’ FORGIVEN at Justification, is later in the Believer’s life actually literally committed by the Believer, 1John 1:9 places a CONDITIONAL “IF” on this Sin as to whether GOD will FORGIVE/NOT FORGIVE it based on the Believer’s individual Confession of that Sin. If therefore, this SAME IDENTICAL Future Sin was INITIALLY ‘absolutely’ FORGIVEN at Justification – why is there an additional request for its FORGIVENESS by God in 1 Jn. 1:9…this is NOT a NEW Sin but as stated – the SAME IDENTICAL ‘Future’ SIN that is stated as ‘absolutely’ FORGIVEN at the moment of the Believer’s former New Birth? Thus, the above example of the FUTURE Sin of Idolatry is suggested to be ‘absolutely FORGIVEN’ at the Believer’s moment of INITIAL Justification, but now when the Sin is actually committed and becomes reality, this SAME IDENTICAL FUTURE Sin formally identified as ‘absolutely’ FORGIVEN at INITIAL Justification is NOT FORGIVEN at all by God without meeting the CONDITIONAL “IF” requirements of the Believer’s CONFESSION (1 Jn. 1:9). It matters NOT what label we place on Sin… SIN is SIN – Fellowship/Positional/Experiential, etc., or whatever, it is still SIN. Meanwhile, if that SIN must be CONFESSED to achieve FORGIVENESS then there was NO ‘previous’ absolute FORGIVENESS of the said SIN. Nonetheless, if we call it a FELLOWSHIP Sin – 1Jn. 1:9 makes it clear that God will FORGIVE based on the Believer’s CONFESSION of the Sin – IF. However, if there is refusal to Confess the knowable Sin and ask God for FORGIVENESS, He will NOT FORGIVE the Sin – this is the force of the CONDITIONAL “IF” in 1 Jn. 1:9. Thus, we have then a potentially UNFORGIVEN SIN which is in stark contrast to the suggested ‘absolute’ FORGIVENESS of ALL Sins (Future) at the New Birth (Initial Justification) experience. We cannot simply just throw away the inherent consequences of the CONDITIONAL ‘IF’ in 1 Jn. 1:9. – it implies a free-will CHOICE resulting from meeting or NOT meeting the established CONDITION. For example, He who BELIEVES shall be SAVED – what is the CONDITION? One must met the established CONDITION of BELIEVING in order to be Saved. Therefore, a CHOICE…yes Saved/no Not Saved. Meanwhile, the FUTURE Sin(s) that are suggested to be ‘absolutely’ FORGIVEN at Initial Justification become the One and Same Identical Sin(s) POST Justification of literal reality – have now in the future course of time been committed. Therefore, many who support the doctrine of UNCONDITIONAL Eternal Security - classify a singular Sin as having TWO ‘aspects/parts/features’ of FORGIVENESS: 1a. – the JUDICIAL FORGIVENESS…accomplished at INITIAL Justification having a PAST/PRESENT/FUTURE determinate (PERMANENT). 2b. – the PRACTICAL/PARENTAL FORGIVENESS…accomplished at the Believers CONFESSION ‘POST’ Initial Justification. As such, they imply by default that parts A and B of the said Sin are ‘mutually exclusive’ – cannot occur at the same time…One at INITIAL Justification and the other at POST Justification. Moreover, seeing that the ONE SIN has TWO ‘aspects/parts/features’ then by necessity BOTH of the Sin aspects must to be FORGIVEN before the Sin itself can be considered absolutely and COMPLETELY FORGIVEN? For example, I will build ONE house with TWO rooms – can I imply then that the ONE house is FINISHED/COMPLETED if I ONLY build just one of the two rooms? Therefore, how can respective of mutual exclusivity a Sin be anticipated and qualified as ABSOLUTELY FORGIVEN (ALL Sin(s)) at INITIAL PART A Justification, when POST Justification PART B Confession of the same identical Sin itself has NEVER been FORGIVEN (1 Jn. 1:9) – it has never come into existence in the literal and CONDITIONAL "IF" CONFESSION has never been made nor CONDITIONAL "IF" FORGIVENESS asked of God? To reiterate, how then can any one thing with two distinctive ASPECTS being ‘mutually exclusive’ with one aspect CONDITIONAL (1Jn. 1:9 and the CONDITIONAL CONFESSION/FORGIVENESS – “IF”), and BOTH aspects, per their definition, required for an ABSOLUTE COMPLETION, be considered ABSOLUTELY COMPLETED/FINISHED by the FULFILLMENT/COMPLETION of only one of the two required aspects? Going forwards, 1 Jn. 2:4 clearly reveals that we must CONTINUE in the Faith in order to be SAVED. 1 John 2:24 (KJV)
What becomes of those former BELIEVERS that DO NOT hold true to that faith which they have formerly heard from the beginning (Salvation in the shed Blood of Jesus) ABIDING in them? Do they still CONTINUE as an adopted Daughter/Son? PLEASE consider the following with respect to the misguided preponderance - that those who do not continue to HOLD FAST until the end, were actually NEVER Believers to begin with. As such, look very carefully at Heb. 3:1 at who is being addressed by the writer of Hebrews and what he calls them – HOLY BRETHREN and PARTAKERS of the HEAVENLY CALLING – hence, Believers.
Hebrews 3:1 (KJV)
Meanwhile, now look at what the writer of Hebrews in Heb. 3:12 WARNS these same antecedent BRETHREN (the Holy Brethren) concerning their Evil UNBELIEF and their DEPARTING from the living God.
Hebrews 3:12 (KJV)
Likewise, the writer tells the Holy Brethren to, “EXHORT one another daily…”
Hebrews 3:13 (KJV)
In Heb. 10:26-27 Paul is speaking to those who have been BORN-AGAIN... Hebrews 10:26-27 (KJV)
Therefore, my question is quite simple – Can a Born-Again man who has WILLFULLY become the ADVERSARY (the ENEMY) of God still inherit Eternal Life if he/she does NOT apply 1Jn. 1:9 and CONFESS his/her Sins and ask God’s merciful FORGIVENESS? Likewise, please explain Heb. 10:29 with regards to a suggested absolute Justification – because AFTER the New Birth Sanctification and Justification are INSEPARABLE.
Hebrews
10:29 (KJV) You will quickly notice that the SANCTIFICATION of this man is in the PAST TENSE – WAS Sanctified (not IS Sanctified)...the greek ‘hagiazo’ which is used here is a greek Aroist verb in the indicative (mood) which has time tense, and the greek Aroist carries a simple ‘PAST Tense’ time element. To reiterate what is the greek Aorist in the indicative mood? http://www.ntgreek.org/learn_nt_greek/inter-tense.htm et. al. For instance, outside of the indicative mood it is often customary to use the tense that implies a 'simple occurrence', the aorist tense. The aorist places no emphasis on the progress of the action, but only shows a simple occurrence (or summary occurrence), the action viewed as a whole. If the writer does not wish to emphasize or focus on the progress of the verb's action (whether continuous or completed) he will use the aorist tense. The term 'aorist' means 'unspecified' or 'unlimited'. It signifies nothing as to the progression or completeness of an action, it just indicates 'happenedness' or simple occurrence. If one has the mistaken concept that aorist tense means past time, many passages of the New Testament will be very confusing if not altogether nonsensical. (Only in the indicative mood does the aorist indicate past time). Many times the action of a verb in the aorist subjunctive or aorist imperative forms, for instance, will actually take place at a future time, not a past time. Here are some more Scriptures that use the SAME EXACT greek "stephanos" as Rev. 3:11.
Revelation 3:11 (KJV)
Do you suggest that one can LOSE their following 1 Peter 5:4 & Rev. 2:10 CROWN and still have Eternal Life?
1 Peter 5:4 (KJV)
Revelation 2:10 (KJV)
In summary, these above Passages clearly define the conditional IF clause of Heb. 3:14 – the BRETHREN will ONLY remain PARTAKERS with Christ as long as they HOLD FAST to their initial Faith. Thus, they are WARNED that they will LOSE that PARTAKING with Christ, “IF” they fail to continue in the Faith (to HOLD FAST). Hence, they willingly DEPART from God because of an EVIL HEART of UNBELIEF. However, what you imply is that “IF” they fail to hold FAST – they were NEVER Holy Brethren to begin with…even though they are called this in Heb. 3:1. That is like saying that, You now own a car, and this is your car IF you continue to make the payments – however, whenever you fail to continue making the payments, as per your suggestion, you NEVER owned the car to begin with. The road to Eternal Hell is paved with the grievous victims of BLASPHEMOUS doctrines. The doctrine of UNCONDITIONAL Eternal Security (a doctrine of devils), is a direct blasphemous assault on the Cross and Blood of Jesus, and TEACHES mankind that subsequent to the New Birth, they can commit ANY and ALL SINS, unrepentantly, but can NEVER lose their Eternal positions in Heaven...their FUTURE willful Sins were taken care of for them at the Cross. Their ONE MOMENT of Initial FAITH which resulted in their New Birth...OBLIGATES God to UNCONDITIONALLY Eternally SAVE their SOULS - NO MATTER WHAT!
This
will come as a shock to many, but Jesus did NOT Shed His Blood on the
Cross, so that Sinful mankind could use His Cross as a cloak for their
willful and unrepentant SINS. Mankind has a FREE-WILL.
I do not know how much more clear God would have to make it to men, than the CONDITIONAL REQUIREMENT of FAITH regarding INITIAL Salvation (New Birth), other than in Acts 16:30. In the below cited Passages, when Apostle Paul and Silas had been thrown into jail for their FAITH, and while they were singing praises unto God, a great earthquake fell, shaking the very foundations of the prison where they were being kept. The keeper of the prison, seeing that the doors of the prison and all prisoner bands had been loosed, drew out his own sword and MADE the CHOICE to COMMIT SUICIDE, except for the CRY of Apostle Paul.
As
such, calling for a light and thrusting himself into where Paul and Silas
were imprisoned, the Keeper fell down TREMBLING before them, from the fear
of the majestic events that he had just experienced. He thus brought Paul
and Silas out and asked the ALL important question,
"WHAT
MUST
I DO
TO BE
SAVED?"
To this end, the KEEPER wanted to know what ACTION he himself, NOT GOD or PREDESTINATION, MUST DO in order to be SAVED, with Paul and Silas declaring Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be SAVED... Romans 11:17-18 (KJV)
Romans 11:20 (KJV)
Romans 11:21 (KJV)
Romans 11:22 (KJV)
So what are the above Passages saying? In Rom. 11:17 above the ‘SOME’ of the BRANCHES (plural) that were BROKEN OFF were the ‘unbelieving Jews’, not Peter, James, John, etc., but rather the non-believers to whom the Gospel was first offered, and the ones grafted in are the Gentiles (the wild olive tree with all of its BRANCHES). The two Olive Trees (Jew and Gentile) are grafted together and are BOTH sustained by the ROOT - Yeshua Jesus. What is the warning then to the Gentiles – the wild olive tree? 1.) Be not highminded, but fear 2.) Must continue in his goodness 3.) Otherwise thou also shalt be cut off Please note the translated word CONTINUE (greek epimenes – G1961 – to stay over, remain, continue, abide) in Rom. 11:22 cited above as a condition for the BRANCHES avoiding being CUT OFF as well. There is NO Eternal Life for the BRANCHES, wild or natural, absent the Root and Fatness of the Olive Tree. Therefore, for the BRANCHES that are Broken Off/Cut Off means NO Salvation and subsequently Eternal Death. With respect to Christians (BRANCHES), what 1 Cor. 3:15 teaches is that the ONLY ‘Foundation’ upon which WORKS (be they good or bad) can be built is the foundation of Jesus Christ.
1 Corinthians 3:11-15 (KJV)
Therefore, no matter what the WORKS gold, silver, precious stones, wood, hay, stubble the individual (BRANCH/Believer) performing them must build them ONLY on the ‘foundation’ of Christ. Therefore, if the BRANCH is on the foundation of Christ even though his/her works may be wood hay or stubble, while the WORKS themselves will be BURNT, the Branch will NOT. However, if the Branch has departed and no longer ABIDETH in the Foundation, the True Vine of Christ, BOTH the Branch as well as the Works will be Burned just as John 15:6 and 1 Cor. 3:15 declares.
Hebrews 10:26-27 (KJV)
Revelation 22:18 (KJV)
Thus, can the willful and "Unrepentant" Sins committed by someone in this world, who was once a Born Again Believer, eternally SEPARATE them from God and Christ in the next world to come? In order to have Eternal Life one must 'ABIDEth' (to stay - continue - remain) in Yeshua Jesus otherwise they will wither and die. John 15:3 (KJV)
John 15:4 (KJV)
John 15:5 (KJV)
John 15:6 (KJV)
The translated English word 'abideth' in the above Passage (Jn. 15:5) is the greek word 'menon' and is used in the greek as a verb participle, present, active, nominative, singular, masculine. According to Strong's 3306 the greek word means:
In Jn. 15:10 Jesus declares to His disciples that IF they keep His commandments they will ‘Abide’ in His love. John 15:10 (KJV)
What does the little conditional IF in Jn. 15:10 declare regarding the CONTINUED (Abiding) justification/sanctification/glorification of the disciple (IF YE) who CHOOSES not to keep His commandments? We are no longer referring to figurative branches in this particular passage but a direct personal declaration by Yeshua to His disciples. Therefore, the conditional IF in this said passage mandates an individual Choice as to whether or not a BELIEVER will CONTINUE to ABIDE in the love of Jesus’ and likewise the love of the Father.
To this end, would you suggest that Salvation is yet granted to those
individuals who have CHOSEN not to keep His commandments and ABIDE in His
love in their rebellious condition? An examination of some of the texts dealing with eternal life will throw much light on this subject. In John 3:16 we read... "That whosoever believeth in Him should not perish but have everlasting life." Failure to notice the grammatical form of the verb "believeth" in this text has led many to suppose that once a person believes he can never be lost. "BelievETH" is the present indefinite tense of the verb "believe." It differs from the aorist or historic tense (Greek) which is used elsewhere, as in John 8:31, which reads: "Then Jesus said to those Jews which believED on Him, IF YE CONTINUE...then are ye my disciples." To HAVE believED is the beginning of the Christian life. It is past or historic tense. When you believED you got saved. To continue believing, i.e., whosoever believETH (that is, continue believing) hath eternal life." (see more at the end of this article) This is echoed in John 8:31,"Then said Jesus to those Jews which believed on Him, IF ye continue in My Word, THEN are ye My disciples indeed." In the Book of Galatians, Apostle Paul makes it perfectly clear that some of the Jews had already FALLEN from GRACE by returning to the works of the flesh and the Mosaic Law.
Galatians 1:6 (KJV)
Galatians 4:19 (KJV)
Galatians 5:4 (KJV)
Galatians 5:7 (KJV)
James teaches us that if ANY Christian errs from the truth, and one converts him he shall save a SINNER'S soul from death and hide a multitude of sins. This BACKSLIDDEN Christian was in DANGER of losing his/her very SOUL (not just his flesh) to DEATH.
James 5:19-20 (KJV) Just as Eph. 2:8 suggest... we are Saved by Grace Through Faith... Moreover, Jesus reveals in Matt. 5-6, 20-21 and Lk. 8:6, 13 that these NEW Believers were doomed to FALL AWAY.
Luke 8:13 (KJV)
Thus, Jesus compared these NEW Converts to the botanical plant kingdom - they had NO ROOT(s). Therefore, what happens in an agricultural situation when a plant has NO Roots - it FALLS AWAY (figuratively falls from grace - euphemism for it DIES). It is not as though we can magically add ROOTS to this doomed plant - its dead. In Rev. 3:20 Jesus WARNS Believers that if they continue as OVERCOMES He will not BLOT OUT their names form His Book of Life. However, what about those who FAIL to remain TRUE to the FAITH and finish the race as OVERCOMERS? Can a name be BLOTTED OUT of the Lamb's Book of Life that was NEVER there to begin with?
Revelation 3:5 (KJV)
In Colossians, 1 Corinthians and Hebrews Apostle Paul reveals that Christians must keep the FAITH.
Colossians 1:23 (KJV)
1 Corinthians 15:2 (KJV)
Hebrews 3:6 (KJV)
Meanwhile, as stated above, Eph. 2:7-8 reveals we are 'Saved by Grace' THROUGH Faith, and this is NOT of our own 'Works', but rather the grace and the doings of God.
Ephesians 2:8 (KJV)
Ephesians 2:9 (KJV)
PLEASE ponder these questions... Am I in control of the FAITH mentioned in the above Passage or is God...? Do I as an individual have ANY voice whatsoever in the specified equation above respecting 'Saving FAITH'? Is absolutely righteous God a respecter of persons... would He actually give one person(s) a special GIFT of Faith/Believing BEFORE their 'initial' SALVATION that would ultimately result in their being Born Again (PREDESTINATION), while another would not receive this same gift of special Faith at all, and ultimately die LOST? Are we helpless, mentally manipulated, mechanical automatons with respect to our Salvation or does OUR individual Faith and Fee-Wills count for anything? What good would such Salvation be to God and Christ if achieved by means for which the subject has NO individual control? Even the Angels were created with a FREEWILL... Is FAITH the SAME as Works or does FAITH precede Works? Is the greek word 'dia - 1223', translated as THROUGH in Eph. 2:8 above, a one time application of FAITH or is it a progressive action? How does this FAITH apply to Jn. 6:67 and what Jesus asked the 12 Disciples... Will you ALSO go away? Have you ever once believed in something that you now NO LONGER believe in? To this end, can one have Eternal Life abiding in them if they have NO FAITH in the object of Eternal Life itself... Yeshua Jesus? Thus, the real issue with respect to Eternal Security in John 6:67 is this... Jesus personally gave the 12 Disciples a CHOICE based on their individual FAITH - these 12 Disciples were NOT Messianic robots and had NOT by any stretch of the imagination abandoned their FREE WILLS. As such, however, they were asked a DIRECT QUESTION by Jesus to make a critical DECISION as to whether or NOT they would actually CONTINUE to follow Him... THROUGH FAITH. Therefore, did Jesus die to give us Faith and Eternal Life or Eternal Life THROUGH the Free-Will Exercise of Our FAITH in JESUS? Meanwhile, regarding the misguided doctrine of PREDESTINATION that goes hand-in-hand with the doctrine of UNCONDITIONAL Eternal Security we MUST understand God's respect for mankind's FREEWILL - after all HE gave it to us at our creation... Adam and Eve made a conscious CHOICE. From the 'Foundation of the World' God Predestined that He would offer a PLAN of SALVATION for both Jews and Gentiles alike (ALL mankind). However, those who CHOOSE to willingly exercise their FAITH and become Believing participants in that PREORDAINED Plan of Salvation (the Shed Blood of Jesus) is an INDIVIDUAL Choice. Therefore, it is a CHOICE on our behalf for us to become an ADOPTED Child of God based upon a PREORDAINED and Established PLAN. God's Word is UNIVERSAL to ALL who will HEAR it and BELIEVE. That is why the Gospel, and its URGENT distribution, is so precious - there are NO two ways into HEAVEN, it is through the Name and Blood of Jesus or NOT at all. If we can be SAVED by NOT Hearing the Gospel (through ignorance) then the call to ministry is unnecessary and we alternatively would have TWO paths that leads to Salvation... Faith in Jesus or Ignorance. As stated, even the Angels were/are given a CHOICE - the angel Lucifer became SATAN by Choice, and one-third of all of the other created angels BELIEVED the lies of SATAN and made the same eternally 'fatal' Choice. Apostle Paul reveals in Eph. 4:30 and 5:5 that we are SEALED (Secured/Protected - the Promised COMFORTER: Jn. 15:26) by the Holy Spirit of Promise, UNTIL the day of our redemption into His Glory (Eph. 1:13-14). Thus,, as BELIEVERS in the FAITH we are SEALED with the STAMP of God's ownership (2 Cor. 1:22) and approval and have been given the EARNEST (first down payment PLEDGE) of the Holy Spirit in our hearts. However, we can GRIEVE the Holy Spirit through our Sins... culminating in a willful abandoning of our individual Faith. Moreover, in Eph. 5:5 Paul warms that NO Christian or Sinner will inherit the Kingdom of Christ and God, if they PARTAKE of and are identified with the sinful characteristics of Eph. 5:5.
Ephesians 4:30 (KJV)
Ephesians 5:5 (KJV)
Ephesians 5:7 (KJV)
Moreover, Apostle Paul makes it perfectly clear in Col. 3:25 that when it comes to the punishment for Sins God is NO respecter of Person.
Colossians 3:25 (KJV)
In addition in Hebrews 3:17 Apostle Paul makes it perfectly clear that in order to be a PARTAKER of Christ we Christians must remain STEADFAST in FAITH until the END.
Hebrews 3:14 (KJV)
Likewise, it is revealed in 1 Tim 1:19-20 that Hymenaeus and Alexander backslid.
1 Timothy 1:19-20 (KJV)
In the Book of Hebrews Apostle Paul is more direct about DEPARTING from the FAITH...
Hebrews 3:12 (KJV)
Hebrews 3:13 (KJV)
Hebrews 3:14 (KJV)
Hebrews 3:15 (KJV)
Hebrews 3:18 (KJV)
Hebrews
3:19 (KJV)
Going forwards, the very 'death-nail' to the theory of UNCONDITIONAL Eternal Security is in the Biblical example of Judas Iscariot. This particular subject regarding whether or not Judas was ever 'formerly' a BELIEVER goes to the very 'nucleus' of the doctrine of UNCONDITIONAL Eternal Security and cannot simply be ignored. As stated before, in Lk. 9:1 we see that Jesus did indeed grant the Power of the Holy Spirit to ALL 12 Disciples.
Luke 9:1 (KJV)
That being said, Jesus Himself declared that IF a Kingdom is divided against itself it cannot stand - likewise if Satan is casting out Satan his Kingdom is divided against itself. As such, Satan's Kingdom is equally divided when devils are cast out with the Power of the Holy Spirit.
Matthew 12:26 (KJV)
To summarize then, in Matt. 12:25-29 Jesus gave the Pharisees what was to them TWO very unacceptable and distasteful alternatives in explaining the Power He exercised in His casting out of devils. Option 1): IF He was using the Power of Satan to cast out devils then they would have to ACCEPT the proven logical FACT that Satan was actually using Him to divide his own Kingdom against itself, and that their Children was using the same Satanic Power to cast out their devils as well. Meaning, if they went and told their Children that both they and Jesus were casting out devils by the Power of the Devil, then the Pharisees would need to catch the first donkey out of town, because their Children would most likely beat the devil out of them. Option 2): Do NOT Choose option number one --- IF they chose not to accept option number one, then they would have to ACCEPT the proven FACT that Jesus was using the Power of God to cast out devils, thus leaving them with NO excuse other than to believe on His Works and repent of their sins and thereby accept Him, or otherwise be guilty of blasphemy. To the unbelieving and unyielding Pharisees it was the moral equivalent of having the choice of whether you want to be shot or stabbed - either option they chose would equally hurt IF they chose not to accept the TRUTH. However, if Judas was indeed casting out devils as Lk. 9:1 dictates, by either Option 1 or Option 2 described above then, he (Judas) was nonetheless 'dividing' the Kingdom of Satan in either case - just as Jesus explained. To this end, if what those who support the theory of UNCONDITIONAL Eternal Security suggests is then actually TRUE and Judas was a unrepentant SINNER, then they are teaching exactly what Jesus declared that Satan could NOT do - divide his own Kingdom (Mat. 12:26). Thus, as I asked earlier, would Jesus grant the great Holy Spirit Power to a SINNER to cast out devils, preach the gospel, and divide the Kingdom of Satan? Moreover, with respect to theology - or for that matter common sense - can ANYONE submit to me ANY Biblical references that support the notion that the Holy Spirit is/was granted to UNBELIEVERS - Please do NOT try the fallen Prophet Balaam? Therefore, this theological preponderance should be cause for grave concern. Going forwards then in this misguided vain of thinking here would be the Testimony and Witness of Judas if this theory proves to be true - as he went out with the other 11 Disciples into the towns doing miraculous works: "YOU DO NOT HAVE TO BELIEVE IN JESUS TO RECEIVE THIS POWER YOU NOW SEE ME DEMONISTRATE... I AM A SINNER AND I AM EXERCISING THE POWER OF JESUS and THE HOLY SPIRIT - SO CAN YOU..." Does this sound logical that God would actually do this? Moreover, not only are those who support this doctrine suggesting that Jesus and the Holy Spirit would do miraculous works through a SINNER (an unclean vessel), but with respect to Lk. 9:6 they are equally implying that Jesus sent Judas out to PREACH HIS GOSPEL knowing he was indeed a FALSE PROPHET/Sinner - i.e. the testimony of Jesus is the spirit of prophecy.
Luke 9:6 (KJV)
Revelation 19:10 (KJV)
The reason Jesus came as a mortal man was to die for our sins and to set an example that a mortal man could indeed overcome Satan and Sin through His Word by the Spirit of God - He did not come as an angel, but as the mortal Seed of Abraham. Therefore, His POWER was the Spirit of God and NOT the spirit of a man. Christ would have had NO Power as a mortal man were it not for the Holy Spirit of God.
Hebrews 2:14 (KJV)
Hebrews 2:18 (KJV)
Nonetheless, what those who support this divisive 'doctrine of devils' must resolve, but won't, is the most critical and greatest dilemma of all regarding their theory with respect to Jesus' declaration in Matt: 12:26 - "... If Satan cast out Satan, then how can he stand..." Therefore, if Judas was acting as a SINNER (making him a son/child of Satan) and was indeed casting out Satan, then Judas was doing EXACTLY what Jesus said in Matt. 12:26 Satan could NOT do - DIVIDE his own Kingdom against itself. Therefore, was Judas ALWAYS a sinner from the very time that Jesus chose him as one of the twelve Disciples? Matthew 10:1-8
(KJV) Just as Jesus revealed, if Satan could NOT therefore do this (divide his own Kingdom against itself), then Jesus and the 12 Disciples were proven to be using the POWER of God (the Holy Spirit) to cast out the devils and divide Satan's Kingdom. This is what led to Jesus' revelation regarding the 'Blasphemy against the Holy Spirit', the Pharisees were equating the POWER of God with the power of Satan, making it an unclean power. To this end, it was then IMPOSSIBLE with respect to Jesus' own revelation in Matt. 12:26 for Judas at that particular time to have been a 'Son of Satan', and therefore casting out Satan, but he must have been a Child of God. Judas later CHOSE to betray and deny Christ, committed suicide and died LOST (Jn. 17:12).
John 8:44 (KJV)
Acts 13:10 (KJV)
In like manner, you be the Judge - "Can a Christian willingly and repeatedly commit any of these SINS listed below and NEVER ask forgiveness before dying or do these sins and their consequence ONLY apply to SINNERS?"
Revelation 21:8 (KJV)
Here is an example of a TRUE story - there was a woman who was a born again believer for many years, but due to negative circumstances that occurred over the course of time in her unfortunate life she made the CHOICE to turn to drugs, prostitution and bestiality - she died in that very condition NEVER asking forgiveness. Some who apply the UNCONDITIONAL Eternal Security theological principal, when asked this question respond by suggesting, "Well she simply was NEVER a TRUE BELIEVER from the very beginning." In other words she was NEVER a Christian. To this end, what this simply implies is that the abominable sins of this woman CANNOT possibly be committed by a former Christian and therefore, Rev. 21:8, et. al, and the sins thereof ONLY applies to SINNERS. However, you have those who are even more bold and suggest - there is ABSOLUTELY no SIN(s) whatsoever and individual can WILLFULLY commit AFTER becoming a born again Christian that can cause one to loose their Salvation and Soul. This then leaves me to wonder if even AFTER becoming a Christian, in all truthful reality, which of the two has the greatest proven drawing power in one's life, the lusts of the flesh or the desire of the WORD, if they are taught that one cannot afterwards under ANY circumstance lose their soul. Be honest in your answer. Under this assumption, we should simply close ALL of our Churches, because as we both know today there are only a few NEW converts who are coming to Christ by way of these institutions. Therefore, if those who mostly comprise these institutions are Christian anyways - they need NO further support because they are Heaven bound NO matter what. Apostle Paul declared in Phil. 2:12, to Christians and NOT Sinners, that they should caution their SALVATION with FEAR and TREMBLING. To this end, why should a Christian FEAR and TREMBLE if they have UNCONDITIONAL Eternal Security and as stated, NO matter what sins they commit they CANNOT possibly be lost? What is there to fear - losing a reward? Should this make us Tremble?
Philippians 2:12 (KJV)
What does the following Scriptures mean and can an UNSAVED Unbelieving individual be a Disciple of Christ?
John 6:66 (KJV)
John 6:67 (KJV)
Does John 6:67 above reveal that Jesus implied by His question that the Disciples had the ability to CHOOSE to go away (turn back) just as the other Disciples did in Jn. 6:66? How does this effect the theory of UNCONDITIONAL Eternal Security that one CANNOT turn back from Christ once they Believe? Meanwhile, John 6:64 is stated as follows:
John 6:64 (KJV)
What some are presupposing with respect to the above Passage is that ALL of those Disciples had NEVER 'believed' at ANY time. Please consult your greek ISA and look at the PRESENT TENSE verbs of each of the 'BELIEVING' words used in this Passage. Yes, Jesus indeed knew from the very beginning when AT THIS POINT IN TIME who would Believe and who would not. Nonetheless, the present tense verbs used here does NOT by any means include the PAST TENSE - that is ONLY implied on the part of the reader. Moreover, to suggest that ALL of the Disciples who turned back, because Jesus actually knew from the very beginning who they were, is to suggest that ALL of these Disciples had NEVER Believed at ANY time. However, Jesus knew all things, He even knew that a coin was in the mouth of the fish that He instructed Peter to draw out of the sea to pay their Tribute. As such, if we use the analogy many set forth with respect to John 6:64 (they had NEVER believed), we would have to assume that the fish that Peter drew out of the sea had ALWAYS had the coin in its mouth, BECAUSE Jesus knew the money would be in the mouth of the fish at that particular point in time. However, simple logic prevails here - there was a specific POINT IN TIME that the fish acquired the coin in its mouth.
Matthew
17:27 (KJV)
In summary, as referred to earlier, Matt. 13 reveals the Parable of the Sower and how the SEED of the Gospel is accepted and received among mankind. To this end, we see that some of the Seed falls upon stony ground with little earth and does indeed bring forth INITIAL LIFE - but later because of no depth of root it DIES. With respect to the Parable of the Sower then - Jesus makes a clear distinction between the SEED and the SOIL that it is planted in. Therefore, it was the New Life from the SEED that was Scorched, Withered and DIED, BECAUSE of the poor quality of the SOIL - the Stony SOIL figuratively continued to exist in Unbelief. This Parable was to have a literal botanical analogy - thus 'scorched' is a euphemism for DIED. In summary, how could there be Eternal Life dwelling within the Stony Soil (the individual) if the Sown Seed had withered away and died.
Matthew 13:5 (KJV)
Matthew 13:6 (KJV)
There is something inherent in the theory of UNCONDITIONAL Eternal Security that just does not seem right with Scripture. Does the following chain of thought spoken by Peter teach the possibility of a 'backsliding/falling away' Christian?
2 Peter 2:20 (KJV)
2 Peter 2:21 (KJV)
2 Peter
2:22 (KJV)
1 Corinthians
6:11 (KJV)
Peter revealed that those who had escaped the pollutions of the world through the knowledge of Christ and subsequently turned back were figuratively as a DOG (not Christian), who had RETURNED to its vomit. Thus, per Scripture itself, an individual is EITHER a CHRISTIAN or a figurative DOG (Rev. 22:15), they are either IN or OUT of the Body of Christ, SAVED or UNSAVED, but they can NEVER be simultaneously BOTH. Therefore, with respect to 2 Peter 2:22, how could the individual Peter described, who had willfully RETURNED to their sinful vomit OUTSIDE of the Body of Christ, be called anything other than a DOG? They were certainly NO LONGER a Christian (SHEEP) being then OUTSIDE the Body of Christ. Sadly, many cleverly distort this TRUTH to their own twisted logic and simple reasoning, by suggesting that the symbolic animal RETURNING to its vomit should have been listed as a SHEEP if they had indeed turned back to the world. However, how foolish...SHEEP do NOT become figurative DOGS until or unless they willfully ABANDON or LEAVE the Body of Christ (see Rev. 22:14-15 below).
2 Peter 2:20
(KJV)
2 Peter 2:22
(KJV)
Likewise, many suggest regarding 2 Peter 2:22, "...Does it say, “But it is happened unto them according to the true proverb, The sheep is turned to its own vomit again”? No, it does not. It says, “The dog is turned to his own vomit again...”
Revelation
22:14 (KJV)
Revelation
22:15 (KJV)
Moreover, we Christians tend to live in an sterile, idealized, Christian utopian bubble, but here is the ugly and dirty REALITY on the ground. There was a young teenage boy who was the son of two highly respectable Christian parents in both their community and Church. This young boy had just given his life unto the Lord a few weeks earlier, but on this very day both of his parents had been tragically and suddenly killed in an auto accident leaving him all alone. Being an only child the young lad ran immediately to the only source of strength he knew, the beloved Pastor of his Church. Weeping and broken hearted the boy tearfully asked the Pastor this question. Pastor I heard you when you preached that I and my Mommy and Daddy have UNCONDITIONAL Eternal Security in Jesus, and I know that they are both now in Heaven with Jesus. But here is my question to you, can I go to be with my Mommy and Daddy tonight, because I am convinced that I am SAVED? In shock the Pastor did not know what to say... however, he began to plead with the youth that he had all of his life ahead of him and that in time the pain would subside. Moreover, he needed to stay her and continue his journey in Jesus just as his Mother and Dad had. However, the young boy replied, Pastor that is not what I am asking you, I have heard your message of UNCONDITIONAL Eternal Security and I believe you... so PLEASE cut through the chase for me and tell me now this very night - because on YOUR word hangs my impending fate, "if I go home and commit Suicide, according to your doctrine of UNCONDITIONAL Eternal Security, will I join my Mommy and Daddy in Heaven or will I be eternally LOST..." PLEASE Pastor tell me now - YES or NO? To this end, seeing that all doctrine has a literal bottom-line practical application, you READERS answer the young man's question, because this question and others just like it are in REALITY being asked in this world every day, and as Pastors/Teachers, etc., of God's Word we cannot hide from nor avoid their answers - YES or NO? The New Testament is replete with a wealth of WARNINGS to the Church about issues that would directly lead to their FALLING AWAY (i.e. Heb. 6:6). As such, if it were NOT possible for a Christian to FALL from GRACE then ALL of the Biblical warnings would be of NONE EFFECT and thus, pinned by the Spirit of God in vain.
Hebrews 6:6 (KJV)
Here is a quote from a Seminary Professor (Th. D.) who 'ONCE' believed in and supported the doctrine of Eternal Security, and currently teaches at a Bible Seminary. (emphasis added) "...The question really is whether or not someone can change their mind while still in time and turn away from the Lord when previously they had been following Him. I once believed as you did, because that was what I had been taught and the system by which it was taught seemed logical. I was happy to be comfortable with this belief. What changed my mind was scripture. It has been my practice since the foundation of this ministry and before to follow scripture wherever it leads regardless of my prior views or "comfort zone". Scripture says what it says and means what it means. As you suggest in your e-mail, it is a mistake to allow a particular doctrinal system to overwhelm its plain sense. The more I read the Bible, the more it became clear to me that no one could ever get hyper-eternal security out of scripture alone – that "belief" had to be there first and be wedged into scripture later (by logic or analogy or appeal to tradition). On the other hand, while there aren't any scriptures I know of which directly and unmistakably teach "once saved always saved independent of post-salvation free will", there are very many which do teach the opposite (namely, the very real possibility of apostasy) – at least when fairly and honestly considered. These numerous verses have to be vigorously explained away via convoluted exegesis in order for them not to say so. I got tired of the gymnastics; indeed, the Bible through the Spirit led me to give up standing up for a bad cause when the weight of the evidence finally overwhelmed tradition and the opinions of many whom I respect. It was a very painful process, and one which I did not desire, but in the end it is better to know the truth and stand on scripture..." 2) Apostasy: The parable of the sower: Matt.13/Mk.4/Lk.8: Without any doubt, the ground or earth in the parable represents the person in question and the seed planted therein represent the Word of God; there are four situations described by our Lord: 1) the seed/Word does not penetrate the heart; 2) the seed/Word does penetrate but dies on account of pressure; 3) the seed/Word does penetrate but is unproductive on account of pressure; 4) the seed/Word does penetrate and is productive. In all four instances, the description of the person is exactly the same in that all four individuals "hear the Word". Thus it is the response of the person concerned alone from which we must exegete the parable. And in cases 2-4, there is penetration of the Word into the heart (=belief of some sort). Case 1 is clearly an unbeliever from start to finish – the Word never effectively penetrates so that faith "sprouts". Cases 3 and 4 are believers and faith does sprout (although #3 gets into heaven ala 1Cor.3:15 "as through fire"); but Case #2 is clearly also someone who did believe at first (for faith did sprout). This person is said to have received the Word into his/her heart "with joy", but then gave it up when circumstances made it uncomfortable to retain it (i.e., faith withered and died); that is to say, group #2 lost faith. For these people, a group of people about whom Jesus Himself tells us who look and sound for all the world like believers – until they turn away – it seems to me that saying they never really believed is disingenuous and not in accord with the scriptures in all three of the gospels where this parable occurs actually state. I cannot find a reasonable way to square this parable with anything else but the otherwise scripturally sound proposition that a person can stop believing in Jesus, regrettable as that truly is. If that were not the case, moreover, free will would stop the moment we believed, begging the then very legitimate question of why in the world we would still be here after salvation. The list of Scriptures that speak AGAINST the logic of UNCONDITIONAL Eternal Security is overwhelming... those that you and I have been discussing are ONLY a part of them. As such, respective of John 3:16 and the Greek PROGRESSIVE PRESENT use of the greek word 'pisteuon' as a CONTINUATION of BELIEVING - it is NOT simply a One-Time-Event. Precision Available To Say Whether A One-Time Faith Saves The presence of the Greek aorist tense is deadly to those who defend translating John 3:16 to imply faith is a one-time event. If John 3:16 had this meaning, the underlying verb should have been in the Greek aorist instead of the present participle active. The very existence of the Greek aorist is dispositive proof that if a one-time faith saves, the aorist tense would have been used to convey such meaning in John 3:16. Its absence in John 3:16 thus prohibits using the equivalent of the aorist in English—believes. A correct translation should have used the English Continuous Present (“is believing”) or a closer-to-original translation of “keeps on believing/trusting.” The KJV mistranslated John 3:16. This has had a devastatingly misleading effect on our perception of what is entailed in salvation. The unvarnished truth is that John’s Gospel uses the Greek present participle active in John 3:16. It does not use the aorist for believes. Now compare this with the aorist active participle when used in a salvation passage. In Matthew 10:22, this aorist conveys a completed condition of endurance as what saves. Jesus says: “he who endured (aorist active participle) to the end shall be saved.” A single-momentary faith is not promised salvation here. Only a lifetime of endurance is promised salvation. Thus, we see the Gospel writers knew how to use the aorist in relation to salvation in such a manner compatible with the true translation of John 3:16. Accordingly, every way you slice it, salvation is based on enduring to the end and not on a one time believing (trusting) in Jesus. A one time faith that has failed never can save and never will. The idea that a one-time faith means you are saved eternally is based on a fiction born from English defective translation. _________________________________________________________________ 1. James Hewitt, New Testament Greek (Hedrickson Publishers: 1986) at 13. 2. See “Jeffrey Rydberg Cox Overview of Greek Syntax,” WH Greek New Testament (Tuft’s University on-line). Grammar Pros on Greek Present Tense What is the present tense in Greek? One Greek grammar text explains the present tense and its meaning as follows: The present tense is basically linear or durative, ongoing in its kind of action. The durative notion may be expressed graphically by an unbroken line (—), since the action is simply continuous. This is known as the progressive present. Refinements of this general rule will be encountered; however, the fundamental distinction will not be negated.1 Dana and Mantey in their A Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament likewise explain the Greek present tense has a primary meaning of action in progress. Dana and Mantey explain the present progressive (active) tense thusly: The fundamental significance of the present tense is the idea of progress. It is the linear tense... the progressive force of the present tense should always be considered as primary, especially with reference to the potential moods, which in the nature of the case do not need any ‘present punctiliar’ tense... There are three varieties of the present tense in which its fundamental idea of progress is especially patent. Under the Progressive Present…[t]his use is manifestly nearest the root idea of the tense. It signifies action in progress, or state of persistence… Rydberg likewise explains: Present. The present tense denotes an action in the present time with continuing aspect.2 Rydberg is saying the present tense in Greek signifies a continuing sense. Within the Greek present tense are two distinct active forms. These two are the present indicative active and the present participle active. There is a slight difference as to the latter which is always to be translated with a continuing sense. The Syntax Reference Guide (Quick Verse 6.0) provides this further explanation, starting first with the present indicative: Appendix A: Greek Issues Jesus’ Words Only iv Present. Definition-Present tense in the indicative mood represents current action, as opposed to past or future action. In moods other than the indicative mood, it refers only to continuous or repeated action. Thus, this means the present participle active (as in John 3:16) falls in the category of a mood “other than the indicative.” It thus signifies “only...continuous or repeated action.” In closing, Can the willfull and Unrepentant Sins committed by someone in this world, who was formerly a Born Again Believer, SEPARATE them from God and Christ in the next world to come? YES!!! |
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